Can you explain it to me because I’d love to know more. My base assumption is if the US had a spike in food prices would they not dramatically increase interest rates, until food prices deflated?
Rising rates would then drop their current asset bubble due to a contraction in money supply. Hence it could be seen not to be as much a tax as it would be a large amount of pain for existing asset holders who hold nominally valued assets, which would mainly be the rich?
Another assumption I’d make is higher inflation would also lead to a lower unemployment and greater wage pressure, due to the phillips curve?
Can you explain it to me because I’d love to know more. My base assumption is if the US had a spike in food prices would they not dramatically increase interest rates, until food prices deflated?
Rising rates would then drop their current asset bubble due to a contraction in money supply. Hence it could be seen not to be as much a tax as it would be a large amount of pain for existing asset holders who hold nominally valued assets, which would mainly be the rich?
Another assumption I’d make is higher inflation would also lead to a lower unemployment and greater wage pressure, due to the phillips curve?