• Paragone@lemmy.world
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    1 day ago

    I don’t understand the logic:

    IF residences exist ( according to concentration-of-wealth-archy ) solely to extort as much wealth from the population as possible, & that is maximized when a significant-fraction of the population is homeless,

    THEN … manufacturing more housing just means that the institutional residence-possessors have to possess more residences, in order to keep enough of the population homeless for maximal-exploitation & maximal-institutional-profit?


    Other people, of course, would crack down on psychopathic pseudopersons owning residences and reduce homelessness that way, but that’s as “unamerican” as Jesus getting violent on the temple moneychangers, isn’t it?


    He’s intentionally “not understanding” or someting?

    shrug

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